It is interesting to me that many in the pro-homosexual movement seek to help those of us who are Christians understand God’s true position on the issue. Why do they seem to need the approval of the Bible anyway? Maybe it is just an effort to enlist the support of religious people, and sadly there are many who have embraced the task. Or maybe it is because they know that in the infinite scheme of things such a lifestyle is wrong.

These people will argue that Jesus said we are to love our neighbor. Right. And He associated with sinners. Right, again. And He never actually said anything about homosexuality. (Certainly, if God were so against homosexual relationships, Jesus would have spoken such in the word.) Not so fast.

This premise, that since Jesus never openly condemned homosexual relationships they must be OK with God, reflects a fundamental misunderstanding of the Bible. Jesus died without sin, otherwise He could not have been the lamb of God. What does it mean that Jesus was without sin? Jesus was without any sin, including any violation of the old covenant (Mosaic Law) under which He lived and died. In other words, he fully endorsed (even in His silence on the matter) the old covenant’s positions on marriage and homosexuality. In Matthew 19:4–6 Jesus answered and said to them, “Have you not read that He who made them at the beginning ‘made them male and female,’ and said, ‘For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh’? So then, they are no longer two but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let not man separate.” Jesus taught that marriage had been defined at creation, and He said nothing to contradict that definition. In addition, under the old law, the penalty for homosexuality was, according to Leviticus 20:13, death. Jesus, again, said nothing to contradict that penalty which would have been in effect until Jesus died and nailed the old law to the tree, Colossians 2:14.

Some may cry, “What about Jesus and the woman caught in adultery in John 8?” It is true that Jesus did not condemn her (did not allow the penalty of the law to be carried out), but what did He say to her? “Go and sin no more.” What was the sin? Adultery. Though Jesus may have pardoned her, He also told her to stop committing adultery. If He had been brought a homosexual, what might have happened? Might He have similarly pardoned that person? Surely, but He also would have said, “Go and sin no more”, that is, stop living a homosexual lifestyle.

Jesus lived and died as an Israelite under the Mosaic Law which forbade the practice of homosexuality and gave its penalty as death. In the absence of any clear statement to the contrary, wherein Jesus may have revealed a change in God’s old law, we must assume that there was no change in Jesus’ mind or God’s will. Since He came to do God’s will (and was the word, and was God, John 1) and was obedient to it, we know His teaching was in accord with the law under which He lived. Here is an argument for God’s silence having meaning. Jesus said nothing about homosexuality because He had nothing new to reveal on the matter, nothing, anyway, that would contravene what God had previously revealed. So the argument that Jesus’ silence on the matter gives approval to it is utterly false and, therefore, dangerous. Do not be deceived.